Calvin Stengs’ anticipated move to Charlotte FC has been called off despite the Dutch winger successfully completing medical tests in London yesterday. The 25-year-old, who currently plays for Feyenoord, was expected to join the Major League Soccer (MLS) side, but the deal has now collapsed.
Background
Stengs, who has previously played for AZ Alkmaar and OGC Nice, was set to make a significant move to the United States. The transfer was initially reported on 11 August, with Stengs scheduled to undergo medical examinations shortly thereafter.
Medical Tests
The medical tests were conducted in London, and Stengs passed them without any issues. However, despite this, the transfer will not proceed as planned.
Player Profile
Calvin Stengs is known for his versatility on the field, primarily playing as a winger. His style of play includes strong dribbling skills and the ability to create scoring opportunities for his teammates. At 25 years old, Stengs has accumulated experience in both the Eredivisie and Ligue 1, showcasing his talent at various levels of European football.
Previous Developments
The news of Stengs’ potential move to Charlotte FC had been building over the past few days. On 11 August, it was reported that he was set to join the MLS club from Feyenoord, and later that day, it was confirmed that he would undergo medical tests.
The reasons behind the collapse of the deal remain unclear, and neither Charlotte FC nor Feyenoord have provided further comments on the situation.